Russian geneticist asserts – 16%. It means, more than 210 millions.

legit equivalent to aframs vs. SSAs in Africa. very stupid stuff

genetically the same.

“Whose to say the Muslims didn’t collaborate”

There’s no evidence for it. The accounts of horror we have from the massacre are written by Muslim Delhians who vilify the Persians, with Mughal officials being the ones pleading with Nadir Shah to stop the slaughter.

“A reasonable way to understand the spread of IE languages is through the process of diffusion together with some movement of people in a manner that is not so different from the spread of Indian culture in Southeast Asia.”

What if the Vedic culture and language diffused out, and then either ethnic or religious conflict caused a culturally/religiously/linguistically allied but genetically distinct external population to migrate to “India” and merge with the indigenous population? It would be like if Kampuchean or Bali Hindus had to flee their homes and “returned” to India. They would be genetically distinct but culturally allied.

Towards Indo-Aryan vs indigenous Brahmin, I’ve harbored uneducated guesses about (though maybe that is a much later merge event) whether Iyers(Shaivite) were more indigenous than Iyengars(Vaishnavites), as later comers. Whether the self-immolation of Sati over non-inclusion of Shiva in her father’s Vedic rites and then later marriage of Shiva and Parvati was towards reconciling two distinct, i.e., more ancient and later traditions. Whether Vyasa made his heroic figures, men and women, in the Mahabharata, mostly dark-skinned (as he was himself) to make a point to fair-skinned people he lived among. Valmiki made Rama dark-skinned, as he was himself was, presumably too.

If I ignore your apparent bad mood let me conclude. You are agree with my note re English and Celts. You are also agree with me that Greeks also came from somewhere to today’s Greece but you may expected more argumentation. I wrote abut this before I will do again. The point is that we agree with Razib’s assertion about (non)memories of migration.

Finally, re OIT (or OHT – out of Harayana) I mentioned couple times. I had sympathies for OIT proponents because I think that they are Hindu patriots. I support every patriot from any background. However, OIT become to look like a sect or political movement which only try to find only evidence which support that ‘Aryans’ originated in Punjab (Harayana, Utar Pradesh) and went to Europe. They ignore genetics, linguistics, toponyms, mythology, rituals, etc, which all state the opposite and their only source are epic’s verses where search for astronomy evidence.

Did you say something?

2. Razib’s suggestion is intriguing (Brahnmin’s are pre-steppe-input priests combined with steppe input around 1500 BC). It can resolve some pieces of the puzzle as he points out. But I wonder (as a lay reader): is it possible then that these pre-steppe-input priests were the ones who “owned” already-old RigVeda (and, yes, therefore already IE or PIE, but may be a different variant of IE language?)? So, the steppe input can be real (of course) but so can Saraswati-era RigVeda-in-India be real. Of course, I know this goes against current consensus; but I’d appreciate some kind knowledgeable soul to explain what are non-dismissive concrete arguments against this “hypothesis”. I suppose they’d be linguistic?

“so I’m inferring that most of those killed were Muslim.”

OK, so just speculation i.e. no actual history. What, for instance, rules out the possibility that the Muslims of Delhi colluded (as some Muslims did, say, with Abdali against Marathas) and the killings were of the Hindus who resisted or who were seen as kaffirs undeserving of normal human treatment ?

Not saying that is what happened but what rules it out ?

I agree with the proposition that the sophistication of Brahmnical practice and belief system must have emerged from a settled agricultural semi-urban community like the Indus Civilization. But how did this exist among the Celtic Druids if they had nothing to do with the Indus civilization ?

But what about the priesthood of the other branches of IE-speakers? Do we know whether Greeks also had the concept of soul-migration? Or the Norse, or the Balts, or Iranians? If we only have 2 supporting data points, it could be a coincidence, or there may be an altogether different explanation, no?

informed by the knowledgeable Indians that they counted 6454 years and 153 kings

That’s 42 years per king. Sounds quite high to me; would that really have been possible back then for such a long period (7 millennia)? Do you know if other cultures have claimed similarly long lineages, or were Indians circa 300BC sui generis?